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If fashion is actually a way of expression that ends in disseminating the elite to the lower class, how could it then be possible that currently it circulates from the subcultures to the upper class?
Literally, if we go back to the 19th century, we can easily notice the distinction in people’s clothing behaviour. In the 19th century, the class difference was substantially enormous so that the working class was able to emulate the upper class only by means of imitating their clothing behaviours. In some respect, for the upper class, clothing did not only mean dressing, but it was a way of showing off their wealth to their inferiors at the same time...
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